Am I right in assuming that at a given RPM a motor produces a set amount of torque, and if the gear ratio on the output shaft is 3:1, then the torque is devided by 3?
IE: 1000 RPM and 100ft/lbs with a 2:1 gear up you would have 2000 RPM, and 50ft/lbs?
I know this may be super simple to most on here, but I want to be sure that I am not skewed on this fact.
THANKS!