Tommy Cookers wrote:@Stradivarius
eg in the Aero, Chassis & Tyres section the thread 'Define Tyre Grip' shows 1.7 ideal (old data ex Carroll Smith?)
how else does eg MotoGP corner around 60deg lean ?
friction coeff of 1 is about right for a 1960 race tyre, sorry to be blunt
if you have centripetal accels of 1 presumably there is simultaneous high longitudinal acceleration
You are right that if there is tangential acceleration, it will affect (reduce) the centripetal accelereation. But since the data at f1.com is usually taken from the apex, where the speed is lowest, I don't think there is any significant tangential acceleration. If you are braking all the time until you start accelerating again, your driving is not optimal, as you could have held a higher speed through the corner by lifting the brake earlier and accelerating later.
I still find it hard to explain how the sideways acceleration is smaller than 1 through any turn on any track, if the friction coefficient was significantly higher than 1, except of course, for the earlier mentioned camber of the track. However, I don't think there is any camber at turn 1 at Monza, so why is the "g-force" as they call it on f1.com only 0.73 g? By the way, g-force generally means total acceleration, not only centripetal component, isn't that so?
in straight line acceleration a surprisingly large factor is the necessary rotational acceleration of wheels'tyres transmission etc
(especially at low speeds, you can't just convert engine power into thrust and treat the vehicle as just a mass with translational inertia only)
I actually thought about this, but didn't expect rotational energy to account for a significant part of the total energy, so I didn't bother to mention it. Now I have tried to look at some numbers and check it for the wheels.
I don't know the exact weight of the wheels, but I have seen someone suggesting the rear wheels might be around 30 pounds, while the front wheels are about 22 pounds. To be conservative I assume that all wheels have a mass m = 15 kg. To be even more conservative, I assume that all the mass is placed at the maximum radius, so that the moment of inertia of each wheel is equal to I = m*r^2. This means that the rotational energy of the wheel is equal to the translational energy of the wheel. If we compare this to the translational energy of the whole f1-car, that the ratio is equal to the ratio between the mass of the wheels and the total mass of the car: 4*15 kg/650 kg = 9.2%, which is worth mentioning, but doesn't really change the situation much. Keep in mind that this is an over-estimate, since most of the mass is located at a smaller radius, and also since the total mass of the 4 wheels is probably smaller than 60 kg.
There is other rotating parts in the drive-train, but I believe they have an even smaller mass and certainly significantly smaller moments of inertia. The rotational speeds, however, is higher, but I find it hard to believe that rotational energy accounts for more than a few percent of the total energy, at the most. Does anyone know the specifications of the flywheel used in f1? I would assum this would account for most of the rotational energy apart from the wheels.
I don't really know this, but I don't expect the total rotational energy to be much more than 5% of the total kinetic energy.
And of course, I am well aware (and in fact think I demonstrated) that the data from circuit maps won't give any accurate figures. I was simply trying, in lack of more accurate data, to establish some figures, but I realize that they are probably less accurate than most figures available as trivia around the web.